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Interesting Differences - between - the Hebrew Texts

 
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PostPosted: Fri May 27, 2005 5:02 pm    Post subject: Interesting Differences - between - the Hebrew Texts Reply with quote

Welcome to the discussion of the amazing wonder of the Ancient Tongues.

In a standard Jewish Tanach with Hebrew side by side with English, there is a footnote that says:
Quote:
* Joshua Chapter 21 verse 36-37
Some versions insert this verse after verse 35:
And out of the tribe of Re'uven, Bezer, and it's pasture lands, and Yahza and its pasture lands, Qedemot and its pasture lands, and Mefa'at and its pasture lands, four cities.
You may see a scan of it here: Joshua21.jpg
Also from an original Koren Tanak printed in Israel 1978 here: josh21.jpg
*FYI: Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia, Chayim/C.D Ginsburg update, Masoretic include Joshua 21:36-37 while Aleppo and Koren Tanach edition omit it. {-edit- Chayim/C.D mentioned here is based on TNK module, as it was brought to attention that apparently the Ben Hayim text (or 2nd Rabbinic Bible) does not have the verses but the earlier 1st Rabbinic Bible did.}
Notwithstanding that detail does not take away from the meaning of the whole passage, though seems beyond coincidence that it could of been even by design taking into account divers sources from distant places agree to the lack thereof, and others agree to the inclusion thereof.. even after a certain date that could reflect the times thereof.


There are also a few similar ensamples even in the first English translation of the New Testament from the original tongue, by William Tyndale: that the Greek texts he used even had a few taken away like Luke 17:36
Luke 17:36
[Two in the field, the one shall be received, and the other forsaken.]
( And i trow that it was by design similarly to the Hebrew passage )


Another interesting difference is found in Psalm 68:27 (Ps. 68:26 in most translations)
Here is a snapshot from the Hebrew texts available from Davar:


Thus far found that BHS, Jewish Koren, (and heard that the ancient manuscript Hagiographa, Naples 1486--87) have the name of the Everlasting LORD, while Aleppo codex, BFBS, TBS (and heard that many other masoretic manuscripts) have Adonai. Still just because many agree to something, or just because it may be older, it still isn't the grounds to make it true. For rather according to the verity of the Scriptures as a holy whole, what makes it true depends if it is in agreement according to the Law of God, that only two or three witnesses are needed to prove a manner. Thus it isn't the majority or oldest witnesses that matters, but rather it is the faithful witnesses' agreement with the evident testimony.

FYI:
"In the Hebrew Bible, the scribes did not alter any text they felt had been copied incorrectly. Rather they noted in the margin what they thought the written text should be. The written variation is called a kethiv and the marginal note is called the qere." strongs 08676
"There are several marginal or qere readings for a kethiv reading." 08678
The Massorah (107-15, Ginsburg's edition) speaks about the emendations of the sopherim and an Appendix From The Companion Bible says there are 134 Passages that the Sopherim out of extreme (that some say mistaken) reverence for the Ineffable Name altered "Jehovah" to "Adonai". Although Ps. 68:27 is not mentioned in the 134 and after some research i have heard that two Professors, Lawrence Schiffman and Nehemiah Gordon have said basically that Bullinger's thesis is wrong.
Notwithstanding, it may not be completely wrong.

William Tyndale was the first to translate the Pentateuch from Hebrew to English, and the first to render LORD (all CAPS) when refering to the name of God who is and forever will be the Everlasting Lord. On a table expounding certain Words (of the first book of Moses) W.T. says:
Quote:
Jehovah{Iehouah} is God?s name, neither is any creature so called. And it is as much to say as one that is of himself, and dependeth of nothing. Moreover as oft as thou seest LORD in great letters (except there be any error in the printing) it is in Hebrew Jehovah,{Iehouah} thou that art or he that is.

Tyndale (of the Masorah's 134 Sopherim emendations) originally rendered Genesis 18:3,27,30,32 as LORD refering to the Tetragrammaton, although for Ge. 19:18, 20:4 he renders it lord. And for the first English translation of the Scriptures from the Hebrew, Tyndale may of well used an ancient Hebrew manuscript, (perhaps from Worms, Germany where he diligently learned Hebrew from his faithful jewish friends.) Later on Miles Coverdale incorporated Tyndale's translation and also followed his ensample of rendering LORD in great letters (when refering to Iehouah.) And in Ps. 68:26 he does have it as LORDE.

The TRC restoration in modern spelling of the English martyrs' translation thus says:
Ps. 68:26
Quote:
Code:
O give thanks unto God the LORD in the congregation,
for the wells of Israel.
Hebrews 2:11-12 brings it to light:
Quote:
Code:
Forasmuch as he which sanctifieth, and they which are sanctified,
are all of one. For which cause's sake he is not ashamed
to call them brethren saying:
I will declare thy name unto my brethren,
and in the midst of the congregation will I praise thee.


Still everything was meticulously noted by the scribes; And in the providence of God, the tidings truth of the wholy Scriptures (as a holy whole) still endureth from Gen. to Generation. And this comes to shew that even against such odds of text preservation in the hands of men from the very beginning, it still is the holy spirit of God that leads to all truth, and a more given glory to God thorow Christ Iesus (Messiahs Yeshuah) the LORD.

ALLELUYA
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